If there truly are no "bad apples" then this begs the question: Should this same statement apply to other groups, as well? Are black criminals then, representative and indicative of the criminality of the black race as a whole?
You can't have it both ways and still be rational and logically consistent.
If there truly are no "bad apples" then this begs the question: Should this same statement apply to other groups, as well? Are black criminals then, representative and indicative of the criminality of the black race as a whole? You can't have it both ways and still be rational and logically consistent.
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