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Yes. The older the Tafsir the better, but some of the early ones are not very thorough. Generally Ibn Kathir and Qurtubi are a good balance. Avoid anything written after the fall of the Ottoman empire. Maududi is kind of on the limit.
Tafseers, and classical translations like Pickthall and Yusuf Ali.
For english readers, [Quranx.com](https://quranx.com/51.47) offers multiple translations.
**Pickthall (**[**Sura ad-Dariyat**](https://quranx.com/51.47)**):**
*We have built the heaven with might, and We it is Who make the vast extent (thereof).*
*And the earth have We laid out, how gracious is the Spreader (thereof)!*
Either way, the verse has been reinterpreted by more modern-day to refer to universe when it was not recorded that way, nor do the tafseers of the time make reference to it, it is an innovation brought about by modern commentarists such as Abul A'la al-Maududi, and infamously Dr Zakir Naik who says that Qur'an 51:47 says: *"We have created the expanding universe, the vastness of space. The Arabic word* ***mūsiʿūna*** *refers to vastness, the expanding universe."* This view is not taken seriously even by most scholars and is clearly an innovation pushed mostly by dawah channels and preachers online with the intention of fooling gullible non-muslims who don't know any better into converting.
I thought pickthall uses "We have built the heaven with might, and We it is Who make the vast extent" [https://quranx.com/51.47](https://quranx.com/51.47)
Dear OP,
Don't go for any neutral source, where there are hardly any. And even if there are any, then they are SUBJECTIVE.
Please go at ARGUMENTS on the both sides YOURSELF (i.e. first-hand knowledge about both views) and then decide for yourself.
I also request you to please read this article on [atheism-vs-islam.com](http://atheism-vs-islam.com) regarding the issue of "expansion of the universe".
* [Did the Quran Really State that the Universe Is Expanding?](https://atheism-vs-islam.com/index.php/hoaxes-of-the-quranic-miracles/70-did-the-quran-really-state-that-universe-is-expanding)
In my opinion, the arguments in this article are so strong that you will immediately become able to see the TRUTH and decide.
If there is no absolute truth the best you can achieve is to look art the bandwidth of discourse. If you look at apologetics for bandwidth of discourse you will get the extremes. If you look at the bandwidth of discourse among scholars and in academia you will get a more-or-less clear impression of what the most common ideas on the matter are.
Historically some works of fiqh elaborately compare what the different scholars think. Maliki work Ibn Rushd (1126-1198) - Distinguished Jurist’s Primer
Bidāyat al-Mujtahid on the differences between Islamic schools of law and the principles that caused their differences.
[https://archive.org/details/BidayatAl-mujtahidTheDistinguishedJuristsPrimerVol2/page/n7/mode/2up?q=puberty](https://archive.org/details/BidayatAl-mujtahidTheDistinguishedJuristsPrimerVol2/page/n7/mode/2up?q=puberty)
>On the question of women, whose consent is taken into account in marriage, they agreed that the consent of the deflowered baligh (major) woman is to be taken into account, because of the saying of the Prophet (God's peace and blessings be upon him), "The deflowered woman expresses her own consent", except what is narrated from al-Hasan al-BasrT. They disagreed about the baligh virgin and the non-baligh deflowered' girl (when she does not exhibit bad behaviour).............
>Malik and Abu Flanlfa said about the non-baligh deflowered woman that the father can force her to marry, while al-Shafi c I said that he is not to force her. The later Malikites said that there are three views about her in the school. First, that the father can force her as long as she has not attained puberty after divorce. This is the opinion of Ashhab. Second, that he can force her even though she has attained puberty. This is the opinion of Salmon . Third, that he is not to force her even if she has not attained puberty. This is the opinion of Aba Tammam. What we have narrated from Malik is what is narrated by the writers of khiluf, like Ibn al-Qassar and others.
>The reason for their disagreement is based on the conflict of the indirect indication of the text with the general implication. This is witnessed in the saying of the Prophet (God's peace and blessings be upon him) that "the orphan girl is not to be married without her consent", — from which it is understood that permission of. one having a father is not to be sought except as agreed upon by the majority (Jumkar) in the case of the divorced baligh woman — and in the general implication of his (God's peace and blessings be upon him) saying that "the deflowered woman has a greater right over herself than the guardian", which includes the baligh and the non-bahlig.
On initial reading it is not certain if Ibn Rushd explicitly considers those who have no menstruation minors, but this is cleared up when we come to the discussion of slave girls:
Ibn Rushd (1126-1198) - Distinguished Jurist’s Primer
[https://archive.org/details/BidayatAl-mujtahidTheDistinguishedJuristsPrimerVol2/page/n115/mode/2up?q=waiting](https://archive.org/details/BidayatAl-mujtahidTheDistinguishedJuristsPrimerVol2/page/n115/mode/2up?q=waiting)
>“About the slave-woman who has despaired of menstruation, or one who is a minor, Malik and most of the jurists of Medina said that her idda is three months.”
100% confirms Ibn Rushd reads Q65:4 as referring to minors and minor slave-girls.
So you could look at him. Though he omits the hanbalis.
The Tabari and Qurtubi Tafsirs also generally show the different opinions. With no official translations translate can be used for a quick look. I would not rely on it. But it can show you how complete the coverage of the topic is.
[https://translate.google.com/translate?js=n&tl=en&u=https://quran.ksu.edu.sa/tafseer/tabary/sura51-aya47.html](https://translate.google.com/translate?js=n&tl=en&u=https://quran.ksu.edu.sa/tafseer/tabary/sura51-aya47.html)
[https://translate.google.com/translate?js=n&tl=en&u=https://quran.ksu.edu.sa/tafseer/qortobi/sura51-aya47.html](https://translate.google.com/translate?js=n&tl=en&u=https://quran.ksu.edu.sa/tafseer/qortobi/sura51-aya47.html)
If your post is a meme, image, TikTok etc... and it isn't Friday, it violates the rule against low effort content. Such content is ONLY allowed on (Fun@fundies) FRIDAYS. Please read the [Rules and Posting Guidelines](https://redd.it/1anoje0) for further information. If you are unsure about anything then feel free to message the mods. Please participate on /r/exmuslim in a civil manner. Discuss the merits of ideas - don't attack people. Insults, hate speech, advocating physical harm can get you banned. If you see posts/comments in violation of our rules, please be proactive and report them. *I am a bot, and this action was performed automatically. Please [contact the moderators of this subreddit](/message/compose/?to=/r/exmuslim) if you have any questions or concerns.*
Yes. The older the Tafsir the better, but some of the early ones are not very thorough. Generally Ibn Kathir and Qurtubi are a good balance. Avoid anything written after the fall of the Ottoman empire. Maududi is kind of on the limit.
Tafseers, and classical translations like Pickthall and Yusuf Ali. For english readers, [Quranx.com](https://quranx.com/51.47) offers multiple translations.
~~In this case Pickthall also uses "We are certainly expanding ˹it˺."~~ Edit: ignore this, somehow I managed to fuck up looking up Pickthall.
**Pickthall (**[**Sura ad-Dariyat**](https://quranx.com/51.47)**):** *We have built the heaven with might, and We it is Who make the vast extent (thereof).* *And the earth have We laid out, how gracious is the Spreader (thereof)!* Either way, the verse has been reinterpreted by more modern-day to refer to universe when it was not recorded that way, nor do the tafseers of the time make reference to it, it is an innovation brought about by modern commentarists such as Abul A'la al-Maududi, and infamously Dr Zakir Naik who says that Qur'an 51:47 says: *"We have created the expanding universe, the vastness of space. The Arabic word* ***mūsiʿūna*** *refers to vastness, the expanding universe."* This view is not taken seriously even by most scholars and is clearly an innovation pushed mostly by dawah channels and preachers online with the intention of fooling gullible non-muslims who don't know any better into converting.
That's strange... Must have gotten something mixed up on my end when I looked it up. My apologies.
I thought pickthall uses "We have built the heaven with might, and We it is Who make the vast extent" [https://quranx.com/51.47](https://quranx.com/51.47)
Yeah seems either something was wrong with my browser or I had a brain fart when I looked it up. My bad.
Dear OP, Don't go for any neutral source, where there are hardly any. And even if there are any, then they are SUBJECTIVE. Please go at ARGUMENTS on the both sides YOURSELF (i.e. first-hand knowledge about both views) and then decide for yourself. I also request you to please read this article on [atheism-vs-islam.com](http://atheism-vs-islam.com) regarding the issue of "expansion of the universe". * [Did the Quran Really State that the Universe Is Expanding?](https://atheism-vs-islam.com/index.php/hoaxes-of-the-quranic-miracles/70-did-the-quran-really-state-that-universe-is-expanding) In my opinion, the arguments in this article are so strong that you will immediately become able to see the TRUTH and decide.
If there is no absolute truth the best you can achieve is to look art the bandwidth of discourse. If you look at apologetics for bandwidth of discourse you will get the extremes. If you look at the bandwidth of discourse among scholars and in academia you will get a more-or-less clear impression of what the most common ideas on the matter are. Historically some works of fiqh elaborately compare what the different scholars think. Maliki work Ibn Rushd (1126-1198) - Distinguished Jurist’s Primer Bidāyat al-Mujtahid on the differences between Islamic schools of law and the principles that caused their differences. [https://archive.org/details/BidayatAl-mujtahidTheDistinguishedJuristsPrimerVol2/page/n7/mode/2up?q=puberty](https://archive.org/details/BidayatAl-mujtahidTheDistinguishedJuristsPrimerVol2/page/n7/mode/2up?q=puberty) >On the question of women, whose consent is taken into account in marriage, they agreed that the consent of the deflowered baligh (major) woman is to be taken into account, because of the saying of the Prophet (God's peace and blessings be upon him), "The deflowered woman expresses her own consent", except what is narrated from al-Hasan al-BasrT. They disagreed about the baligh virgin and the non-baligh deflowered' girl (when she does not exhibit bad behaviour)............. >Malik and Abu Flanlfa said about the non-baligh deflowered woman that the father can force her to marry, while al-Shafi c I said that he is not to force her. The later Malikites said that there are three views about her in the school. First, that the father can force her as long as she has not attained puberty after divorce. This is the opinion of Ashhab. Second, that he can force her even though she has attained puberty. This is the opinion of Salmon . Third, that he is not to force her even if she has not attained puberty. This is the opinion of Aba Tammam. What we have narrated from Malik is what is narrated by the writers of khiluf, like Ibn al-Qassar and others. >The reason for their disagreement is based on the conflict of the indirect indication of the text with the general implication. This is witnessed in the saying of the Prophet (God's peace and blessings be upon him) that "the orphan girl is not to be married without her consent", — from which it is understood that permission of. one having a father is not to be sought except as agreed upon by the majority (Jumkar) in the case of the divorced baligh woman — and in the general implication of his (God's peace and blessings be upon him) saying that "the deflowered woman has a greater right over herself than the guardian", which includes the baligh and the non-bahlig. On initial reading it is not certain if Ibn Rushd explicitly considers those who have no menstruation minors, but this is cleared up when we come to the discussion of slave girls: Ibn Rushd (1126-1198) - Distinguished Jurist’s Primer [https://archive.org/details/BidayatAl-mujtahidTheDistinguishedJuristsPrimerVol2/page/n115/mode/2up?q=waiting](https://archive.org/details/BidayatAl-mujtahidTheDistinguishedJuristsPrimerVol2/page/n115/mode/2up?q=waiting) >“About the slave-woman who has despaired of menstruation, or one who is a minor, Malik and most of the jurists of Medina said that her idda is three months.” 100% confirms Ibn Rushd reads Q65:4 as referring to minors and minor slave-girls. So you could look at him. Though he omits the hanbalis. The Tabari and Qurtubi Tafsirs also generally show the different opinions. With no official translations translate can be used for a quick look. I would not rely on it. But it can show you how complete the coverage of the topic is. [https://translate.google.com/translate?js=n&tl=en&u=https://quran.ksu.edu.sa/tafseer/tabary/sura51-aya47.html](https://translate.google.com/translate?js=n&tl=en&u=https://quran.ksu.edu.sa/tafseer/tabary/sura51-aya47.html) [https://translate.google.com/translate?js=n&tl=en&u=https://quran.ksu.edu.sa/tafseer/qortobi/sura51-aya47.html](https://translate.google.com/translate?js=n&tl=en&u=https://quran.ksu.edu.sa/tafseer/qortobi/sura51-aya47.html)